Fixed old boxlinehack command
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@ -115,7 +115,7 @@
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We know that for any $\epsilon$, $\exists p$ so that $\frac{1}{p} = \epsilon$. This is the \textit{Archemedian Property}. \\
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We know that for any $\epsilon$, $\exists p$ so that $\frac{1}{p} = \epsilon$. This is the \textit{Archemedian Property}. \\
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It is now clear that $\lim_{n\to\infty}a_n = 0$
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It is now clear that $\lim_{n\to\infty}a_n = 0$
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\boxlinehack
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\linehack{}
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$\lim_{n\to\infty}a_n = \pi$ means that $\forall \epsilon > 0$, $\exists N \in \mathbb{N}$ so that $|a_n - \pi| < \epsilon\ \forall n < N$. \\
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$\lim_{n\to\infty}a_n = \pi$ means that $\forall \epsilon > 0$, $\exists N \in \mathbb{N}$ so that $|a_n - \pi| < \epsilon\ \forall n < N$. \\
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@ -149,7 +149,7 @@
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Therefore, if both $A$ and $B$ are limits of $[a_n]$, $A$ and $B$ must be equal.
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Therefore, if both $A$ and $B$ are limits of $[a_n]$, $A$ and $B$ must be equal.
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\boxlinehack
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\linehack{}
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\textsuperscript{*}Note that we can also set $\epsilon = \frac{|B-A|}{2}$, which gives $|B-A| < |B-A|$. This is also false, and the proof still works. However, the extra $\frac{\hspace{2em}}{2}$ gives a clearer explanation.
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\textsuperscript{*}Note that we can also set $\epsilon = \frac{|B-A|}{2}$, which gives $|B-A| < |B-A|$. This is also false, and the proof still works. However, the extra $\frac{\hspace{2em}}{2}$ gives a clearer explanation.
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